[Spellyans] <kk> and <ck>

[Craig Weatherhill]

The SWF spells this word kalgh, kal' (calgh, cal').  Why the  
apostrophe to denote something that was never there in the first place?

Another apparently senseless anomaly - the SWF is spelling marhek,  
marhas, bian/bihan but my'tern.  Why the apostrophe in this word?  It  
will only serve to confuse learners. I will not be using it.

Craig



On 18 Kev 2008, at 11:28, Craig Weatherhill wrote:

> KG's dictionary suggests a Brittonic *kalgo-, and cites B. kalc'h;  
> W. cal(y), and adds: N.B. The final [x] is not attested in Cornish.
>
> So why did he add it?  Because it occurs in Breton?  That is not  
> justification, especially as a final [x] appears to be unattested in  
> Welsh, too.  Words fail me.  A simple operation, favoured by Middle  
> Eastern countries (and the USA), is best applied to *kalgh.
>
> Craig
>
>
> On 18 Kev 2008, at 09:39, nicholas williams wrote:
>
>> Notice kyns ys bos kullyek kenys PC 903 where kullyek = 'cock,  
>> rooster'.
>> Note also Komero ’vyth goz Kal JBoson, where Kal is 'membrum virile'.
>> This word is attested only once, but KK spells it <kalgh>. What is  
>> that on the end?
>>
>> On 18 Dec 2008, at 07:30, Eddie Climo wrote:
>>
>>> Be thankful for small mercies; at least Cornish has never (?) a  
>>> similarly spelt English, otherwise the King of the Barnyard might  
>>> be written as:
>>>> SWF *kokk
>>
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--
Craig Weatherhill