[Spellyans] dhe hag y
ajtrim at msn.com
ajtrim at msn.com
Sun Dec 14 22:42:58 GMT 2008
<dhe> "to" [ðə]
is already orthographically distinguished from
<dha> "thy" [ðə]
but not from <dhe> [ðe:] in
<a dhe> "he comes", at least in UCR.
I don't think that this will be much of a problem but the contrast does
In the SWF, <de> "he comes" is <deu> so I think that we can ignore this.
Is the preposition <dhe> ever preceded by <a>, or <ny>, <pan>, etc.?
How about <a dhe> "goes to"?
I think that's covered in KS by <â dhe>.
So overall, I don't think that we have a problem with <dhe>.
You should mark <y> "his", perhaps <ÿ> in KS, to distinguish it from the
I know that the dieresis is used for a different purpose in KS but this
could easily be learnt as an exception.
It definitely makes sentences clearer.
You could also use <ỳ> but on some systems it is more difficult to type.
Another option would be <ì> but only if <i> is well attested.
Andrew J. Trim
From: "Michael Everson" <everson at evertype.com>
Sent: Sunday, December 14, 2008 8:43 PM
To: "Standard Cornish discussion list" <spellyans at kernowek.net>
Subject: Re: [Spellyans] del 'leaves' and dèl/dell 'so, as'
> On 14 Dec 2008, at 18:35, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
> 'tea' orthographically (both rhyme [teː]). Since <dhe> doesn't contrast
> with anything there's no strong need to write <dhè> which would be [ðɛ]
> rather than [ðə] anyway.
> I have actually thought about this stuff a lot.
>> How is the learner to know when <y> is the unstressed particle, or the
>> stressed personal pronoun?
> Ambiguity in <y> and <y> might be a problem,
>> How is the learner to know that the preposition <dhe> is not to be
>> pronounced **[ðeː]?
> Where's the minimal pair contrast that makes this a problem?
> Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com
> Spellyans mailing list
> Spellyans at kernowek.net
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