[Spellyans] Modern English

Craig Weatherhill weatherhill at freenet.co.uk
Sun Jul 6 14:36:57 IST 2008

But "jazz" isn't a Cornish word.  It's a loan from an undefined 
language.  Interesting to see that some other languags do have 
alternative spellings, but when you consider that not even the 
definitive dictionaries can show how the word was derived, I wonder (and 
question) how these spellings have been arrived at.

I honestly feel that we should be concentrating on how we spell Cornish 
rather than the loan words which, I feel, should remain in their 
original state.  It would then be obvious that they are loan words and, 
as such, do not have to conform to Cornish orthographic conventions.  
English certainly doesn't do this (at least in spelling).  Italian <zz> 
is a "tz" sound and one might expect English to spell it "pitsa".  But 
it doesn't.  It retains the Italian spelling.  I think we should do the 


Michael Everson wrote:
> At 14:03 +0100 2008-07-06, A. J. Trim wrote:
>> For the given example, I would write jazz and jazzek.
>> This won't clash with anything else.
> But it would be inconsistent. We have intervocalic and final <s> as 
> -[z] and <ss> as [s]. Why have both <z> and <zz>?
>> I would have suggested jaz and jazek but I would like <z> to mean <s>/<j> in
>> words like uzy, kerenza, nynz yw.
> I know, but I don't believe we can use <z> for that.

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