[Spellyans] More on bys/bes words and diacritical marks
tom.trethewey at yahoo.co.uk
Thu Jul 10 14:24:30 IST 2008
--- On Thu, 10/7/08, Jon Mills <j.mills at email.com> wrote:
>If the vowel were [I], as you suggest, Tom, then why was it sometimes written <e>?
I am using [I] to label a vowel which lay between [i] and [E]. Perhaps I should have used /e/, since the phonemic notation absolves one of the need to specify realizations.
>Surely [I] would have been written <i> or <y>.
Not necessarily. The scribes were not trained phoneticians.
>For the vowel to be sometimes written <e>, the vowel would have to be even lower than [I], but not as low as [e].
Perhaps it was. The point is it was phonemically distinct from /i/ and /E/.
>What might perhaps be more plausible is a phoneme /I_o/ with allophones [I] and [e].
Such a phoneme is more conveniently labelled /I/.
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