[Spellyans] <y>, <i>, etc
eddie_climo at yahoo.co.uk
Fri Jul 25 10:31:44 IST 2008
On 25 Jul 2008, at 09:50, Michael Everson wrote:
> At 08:42 +0000 2008-07-25, Jon Mills wrote:
>> Like Andrew, I too consider YN (preposition) and YN (adverbial
>> particle) to be the same lexeme.
> Why does one cause mutation and the other not?
Because the single lexeme <yn> does 2 jobs, and uses the 2 mutation
states to distinguish them.
However, <yn> is pronounced identically, irrespective of which job
it's doing. Therefore, it has to be written the same in both cases,
because to do otherwise would lead us into an absurdity:
Consider the case of UC 'cok'. In dictionaries, this is written both
<cok> (with no diacrit), and <co_k> with a macron. Now, we can
distinguish in KS the long-vowel form from the short-vowel one quite
easily. But according to Nance (1938),the long-vowel form has the
following 4 distinct meanings, and thus does 4 different jobs:
(1) a cuckoo (fem.)
(2) a fishing-boat (masc,)
(3) a cook (masc.)
(4) empty, vain, worthless (adj.)
If we attempt to distinguish the 2 homophonic forms of 'yn' in KS, we
should attempt the same with the 4 homophonic forms of <co_k>.
It would be absurd to attempt this with the latter.
Therefore, it would be absurd to attemp it with the former.
In practice, we distinguish the 2 forms of 'yn' by syntactic/semantic
context, with help from the mutation. And we do precisely the same
with the 4 forms of 'co_k'.
KS must have 'yn' for both forms of the former, and (?) 'co^k' for
all forms of the latter.
Eddie Foirbeis Climo
- -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- -
Dres ethom akennow byner re bons lyeshes
Accenti non multiplicanda praeter necessitatem
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