[Spellyans] <y Y> + diacritical
everson at evertype.com
Wed Jun 25 13:50:34 BST 2008
At 12:38 +0000 2008-06-25, Jon Mills wrote:
>So why then do we not need a diaresis over <bm> ~ <mm>?
Because there is no ambiguity. When you see <mabm> you know that it
can be <mamm> and vice versa.
When you see <bys> you don't know if it is a [bi:z]~[be:z] word or a
When you see <bes> you don't know if it is a [bi:z]~[be:z] word or a
Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com
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