[Spellyans] <y Y> + diacritical

Michael Everson everson at evertype.com
Wed Jun 25 13:50:34 IST 2008


At 12:38 +0000 2008-06-25, Jon Mills wrote:

>So why then do we not need a diaresis over <bm> ~ <mm>?

Because there is no ambiguity. When you see <mabm> you know that it 
can be <mamm> and vice versa.

When you see <bys> you don't know if it is a [bi:z]~[be:z] word or a 
[bIz] word.

When you see <bes> you don't know if it is a [bi:z]~[be:z] word or a 
[re:z] word.
-- 
Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com




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