[Spellyans] y-umlaut in 'Beunans Meriasek' ?
craig at agantavas.org
Sun Nov 23 14:57:48 GMT 2008
What happens with the verb "passya", where the Y is unstressed? In
Late Cornish (c.f. John of Chyannor), we're given "passiez". So, is
this an exception? Is the past participle passys or passyes?
On 23 Du 2008, at 14:51, nicholas williams wrote:
> Of course, but the <y> is stressed in that word.
> Cf. KS chastiys 'chastised', goliys 'wounded', proviys 'provided'.
> On 23 Nov 2008, at 13:57, Craig Weatherhill wrote:
>> I don't pretend to be correct but I have always understood this to
>> be as follows:
>> to destroy = destrya (des-TREE-uh)
>> destroyed = destryes (des-TREE-uz)
>> In other words - ye- to be disyllabic.
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