[Spellyans] y-umlaut in 'Beunans Meriasek' ?

Craig Weatherhill craig at agantavas.org
Sun Nov 23 14:57:48 GMT 2008


What happens with the verb "passya", where the Y is unstressed?  In  
Late Cornish (c.f. John of Chyannor), we're given "passiez".  So, is  
this an exception?  Is the past participle passys or passyes?

Craig

On 23 Du 2008, at 14:51, nicholas williams wrote:

> Of course, but the <y> is stressed in that word.
> Cf. KS chastiys 'chastised', goliys 'wounded', proviys 'provided'.
>
> Nicholoas
>
> On 23 Nov 2008, at 13:57, Craig Weatherhill wrote:
>
>> I don't pretend to be correct but I have always understood this to  
>> be as follows:
>>
>> to destroy = destrya (des-TREE-uh)
>> destroyed = destryes (des-TREE-uz)
>>
>> In other words - ye- to be disyllabic.
>
>
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--
Craig Weatherhill





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