[Spellyans] i ~ y
nicholas williams
njawilliams at gmail.com
Tue Feb 3 14:09:22 GMT 2009
Not only is this unjustified theoretically, it appears to be ignored
in speech as well. KK users say arlùth. Just as they say tavaz for
<taves>.
On 3 Feb 2009, at 14:01, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
> but rather assumes a context conditioned variation of [ð] and [θ]
> in unstressed syllables where etymologically /ð/ is expected, i.e.
> British /d/ or intervocalic /j/.
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