[Spellyans] i ~ y
everson at evertype.com
Wed Feb 4 16:54:33 GMT 2009
On 4 Feb 2009, at 16:51, Jon Mills wrote:
> Nicholas Williams wrote:
>> If the two were phonemically distinct ca 1700, they were almost
>> certainly distinct before that, i.e. in Middle Cornish.
> Languages change. How can you possibly assert that /θ/ and /ð/ were
> "certainly distinct" in the Middle Cornish period. Maybe they were;
> maybe they were not.
"The Middle Cornish period" is itself not uniform, as we know.
Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com
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