[Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative
eddie_climo at yahoo.co.uk
Tue Feb 17 16:42:25 GMT 2009
As far as I recall, this distinction between 2p.pl. indicative and
imperative is not made in French, Spanish or German, nor more
relevantly perhaps in Welsh or Scots Gaelic.
Since the citations strongly suggest that this distinction was not
made historically, I see little virtue in recommending it for revived
Cornish. Of course, it's a truism that the final decision is in the
consensus amongst Cornish users, rather than being in the hands of our
small group. But just as they are free to use whatever forms they
choose, so are we free likewise to recommend or deprecate whatever we
The tension between these varying views of a language are completely
natural and healthy. I'm at a loss to understand how some Cornish
speakers are so paranoid about the idea.
Eddie Foirbeis Climo
- -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- -
Dres ethom akennow byner re bons lyeshes
Accenti non multiplicanda praeter necessitatem
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