[Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative

Ray Chubb ray at spyrys.org
Wed Feb 18 12:12:12 GMT 2009

On 17 Whe 2009, at 16:42, Eddie Climo wrote:

> As far as I recall, this distinction between 2p.pl. indicative and  
> imperative is not made in French, Spanish or German, nor more  
> relevantly perhaps in Welsh or Scots Gaelic.

My knowledge of Welsh is limited but it appeared from the Welsh  
grammar that I have that the distinction is made for certain verbs.

Ray Chubb


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