[Spellyans] i ~ y

nicholas williams njawilliams at gmail.com
Tue Feb 3 14:09:22 GMT 2009


Not only is this unjustified theoretically, it appears to be ignored  
in speech as well. KK users say arlùth. Just as they say tavaz for  
<taves>.

On 3 Feb 2009, at 14:01, Daniel Prohaska wrote:

>  but rather assumes a context conditioned variation of [ð] and [θ]  
> in unstressed syllables where etymologically /ð/ is expected, i.e.  
> British /d/ or intervocalic /j/.

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