[Spellyans] i ~ y
njawilliams at gmail.com
Tue Feb 3 17:39:59 GMT 2009
Are you seriously suggesting that /d/ when lenited initially might
have had an allophonic voiceless variant?
It was written after all written <th>, e.g. ty a then omma OM 230.
There were two forms of the third singular masculine prepositional
pronoun: dotho/dotha and thotho/thotha.
Are you suggesting that the first had a voiced initial and the second
could have a voiceless one?
Lhuyd may in final position have been influenced by Welsh, but
initially he actually has different symbols
to represent the voiced and the unvoiced dental continuants.
Then there is the question of place-names.
Is there a difference in the traditional pronunciation of say
Rosenithon < ros an eythyn
and Trevithick < tre Vudhek?
Perhaps Craig could be helpful here.
On 3 Feb 2009, at 16:27, Hewitt, Stephen wrote:
> So please, incontrovertible evidence, Lhuyd aside, in favour of two
> separate phonemes /ð/ and /θ/? Surely the "authentic spellings"
> strongly suggest only one...?
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