[Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative

Michael Everson everson at evertype.com
Thu Feb 19 13:15:04 GMT 2009


On 18 Feb 2009, at 12:12, Ray Chubb wrote:

> My knowledge of Welsh is limited but it appeared from the Welsh  
> grammar that I have that the distinction is made for certain verbs.

I don't find such a distinction. Not evenin those verbs which have  
stress before the ending. Thus:

canwch 'you love', canwch 'love!'
mwynhewch 'you enjoy', mwynhewch 'enjoy!'

Nor in irregular verbs:

byddwch 'you are', byddwch 'be!'
ewch 'you go', ewch 'go!'
dewch 'you come', dewch 'come!'

A Guide to Correct Welsh mentions specifically: "Note that the ending  
of the 3rd pers. plu. imperative in -ent, not 0ant, e.g. canent." with  
no mention of the 2nd person plural.

In Middle Welsh:

kerwch 'you love', kerwch 'love!'
gwnewch 'you do', gwnewch 'do!'
bydwch 'you are', bydwch 'be!'
ewch 'you go', ewch 'go!'
deuwch/dowch 'you come', dewch/dowch 'come!'

The spelling difference in one form of the last monosyllabic here is  
not related to the question at hand.

Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com




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