[Spellyans] Multiple adjectives after feminine nouns
weatherhill at freenet.co.uk
Mon Mar 16 21:58:42 GMT 2009
It's in CW? Thanks for that.
On 16 Mer 2009, at 20:16, Michael Everson wrote:
> On 16 Mar 2009, at 19:03, Craig Weatherhill wrote:
>> The problem is that the corpus is incomplete and, therefore, we can
>> only gain limited knowledge from it. The rest has to be arrived at
>> by analogy.
> That is true, but there is no analogy that handles this rule. It
> goes like this:
> 1. There could be NO examples of a feminine noun followed by two or
> more adjectives. In this case one would assume that Cornish does
> what the other Celtic languages do, and lenites each adjective.
> 2. There is at least one example of a feminine noun followed by two
> or more adjectives showing the feature described. And in fairness,
> there had better ought to be more than one example for it to be
> considered an actual rule.
>> I remember being told once that 'mar pleg/plek' isn't attested in
>> the corpus, but we all use it, nonetheless.
> It's in CW.
>> I remember, too, that Nance made certain guesses that were shown to
>> be correct by the discovery of BK.
> This isn't a "guess" anyone would make. Either there is attestation
> for it, or it is a mistake.
> Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com
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> Spellyans at kernowek.net
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