[Spellyans] fleece

j.mills at email.com j.mills at email.com
Thu Nov 26 14:08:49 GMT 2009

Why unlikely? In the manuscripts, <u> and <v> are in free variation. <u> and <w> are also in free variation. And <f> and <v> are also in free variation. Why then assume that <w> is only used to represent [u]?

Dr. Jon Mills, 
School of European Culture and Languages, 
University of Kent

-----Original Message-----
From: nicholas williams <njawilliams at gmail.com>
To: Standard Cornish discussion list <spellyans at kernowek.net>
Sent: Thu, Nov 26, 2009 2:02 pm
Subject: Re: [Spellyans] fleece

In both CW lywe and TH lew? That seems unlikely.

On 26 Du 2009, at 13:58, j.mills at email.com wrote:

 I wonder whether the attested <-w> might not represent [v].


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