[Spellyans] parsnip

[j.mills at email.com]

Morton Nance (1938) gives the singulative "panesen" for 'parsnip'. The only attestation that I have found is Lhuyd (1707: 114a, 240c) who gives "panan". Lhuyd (1707: 14c, 33a, 114a, 243a) gives the plural as "panez". Are we justified in writing a singulative form "panesen"?
Jon


_____________________________________ 
Dr. Jon Mills, 
School of European Culture and Languages, 
University of Kent

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