[Spellyans] bone-marrow

j.mills at email.com j.mills at email.com
Tue Jan 5 13:00:26 GMT 2010

Morton Nance (1938) gives "mer" for English 'bone-marrow', and marks it with an asterisk to indicate a neologism. Lhuyd (1707: 15b, 87c) gives "marụ". Is there any justification for retaining the form "mer"? I am aware of the Welsh "mêr" (bone-marrow), which was possibly the basis for Nance's neologism.

Dr. Jon Mills, 
School of European Culture and Languages, 
University of Kent

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