daniel at ryan-prohaska.com
Wed Nov 17 12:29:36 GMT 2010
So, we write <th> everywhere as I the texts?
From: Michael Everson
Sent: Wednesday, November 17, 2010 12:39 PM
"On 17 Nov 2010, at 11:30, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
> You’re right, <gwreanathe> could have meant [θ] in the final syllable, but since we have Lhuyd’s <guirionedh> it could just as well have meant [ð] – the point being – we don’t know, and will probably never know for sure. So, all we have is differing “beliefs” and “likelihoods” of what it may have been. The sounds [ð] and [θ] are so rarely distinguished in the texts that I find that Lhuyd’s form must be significant in some way. Faced with the problem of difficult documentation regarding the distinctiveness of the sound, I don’t find an etymological approach all that bad.
But Traditionalists do. And if in doubt, spell as in the texts. "
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