[Spellyans] Notednow ow tochya Skeul an Tavas
njawilliams at gmail.com
Thu Nov 18 18:44:21 GMT 2010
Why the different treatment of the two fricatives?
What phonetic reason is there for the differing treatment?
p/b and k/g behave similarly to each other. Why don't f/v and th/dh?
I am not bending over backwards to get away from KK. I am only doing what I have always done: to analyse the texts and the other
evidence to the best of my ability to arrive at as authentic a form of the revived language as possible.
I don't usually give KK a second thought, since I believe it is fundamentally mistaken (half-length, and no vocalic alternation). I mention it only when you appear to defend the indefensible in it.
Dan, you are being disingenuous. You admit that it is impossible to know about final dh/th and then you say we may be making a mistake.
We may also be making a mistake by adhering to KK spellings.
On 2010 Du 18, at 18:14, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
> In the case of final <f> I’m with you, but not where <dh> is concerned. Bending over backwards to get away from KK forms can also lead to mistakes.
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