[Spellyans] Notednow ow tochya Skeul an Tavas

Daniel Prohaska daniel at ryan-prohaska.com
Thu Nov 18 21:09:32 GMT 2010


They were different because I believe that final [v] in unstressed syllables was usually dropped entirely. As for the older language, we cannot say whether <f> didn’t actually mean [v]. <ff> is a typical baroque doubling of consonants, very typical of the period and neither unique to Cornish, English, but found widely across MMS in Europe. 

As you say, I pointed out that we may be making a mistake – either way. That’s my point – we cannot know. We can just have our preferred interpretations of the available evidence. Hence my call for caution and the possibility for users of Revived Cornish to chose a pronunciation of their preference in this particular respect (concerning final <dh>). 

Dan

 

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From: nicholas williams
Sent: Thursday, November 18, 2010 7:44 PM



Why the different treatment of the two fricatives?

What phonetic reason is there for the differing treatment?

p/b and k/g behave similarly to each other. Why don't f/v and th/dh?

 

I am not bending over backwards to get away from KK. I am only doing what I have always done: to analyse the texts and the other evidence to the best of my ability to arrive at as authentic a form of the revived language as possible.

 

I don't usually give KK a second thought, since I believe it is fundamentally mistaken (half-length, and no vocalic alternation). I mention it only when you appear to defend the indefensible in it.

 

Dan, you are being disingenuous. You admit that it is impossible to know about final dh/th and then you say we may be making a mistake. We may also be making a mistake by adhering to KK spellings. 

 

Nicholas.

 

On 2010 Du 18, at 18:14, Daniel Prohaska wrote:





In the case of final <f> I’m with you, but not where <dh> is concerned. Bending over backwards to get away from KK forms can also lead to mistakes.

 

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