[Spellyans] th/dh

Daniel Prohaska daniel at ryan-prohaska.com
Sun Nov 21 01:04:51 GMT 2010

I’m serious. I’m not talking about consonantS. I’m talking about ONE consonant [ð]. I have ointed out why I think ð/θ is treated differently from g/k.



-----Original Message-----
From: Michael Everson
Sent: Saturday, November 20, 2010 7:24 PM

"On 20 Nov 2010, at 17:02, Daniel Prohaska wrote:


>>> “> While the former would be able to read their [ˈdɪʊəθ] as <dyweth> (or <diweth>), they would wonder why the word is thus spelt when saying [pæn ˈɛɾə ˈdɪʊəð ən ˈvlɛðən].


>> Where do you get this Breton-style sandhi across word-boundaries from? I don't believe there is evidence for it in the texts.”


> Edward Lhuyd’s transcription of JCH.


Not good enough. If you think you have a case to make, present every example that proves sandhi across word-boundaries in that text. 


No previous description of Cornish suggests that consonants regularly voice between vowels across word boundaries. If this is your thesis, you must do the work and prove it. 


I'm serious. Nicholas has published article after article and book after book in which he presents not an argument with an example here or there, but multiple and exhaustive citations. 


I do not believe that the text of JCH will show regular voicing of final consonants across word-boundaries.


Nor have I seen anything from you that actually refutes our thesis that Lhuyd's inconsistencies can be explained by influence from his native language. In understanding Lhuyd, it is just as necessary to take this into account as it is to take into account the contemporary value of the English vowels which he uses to illustrate pronunciation features in his phonetic orthography."



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