[Spellyans] <dh> ~ <th>

j.mills at email.com j.mills at email.com
Fri Nov 26 13:23:57 GMT 2010

On Monday I wrote:
Michael (Sun, Nov 21, 2010 4:18 pm) writes,
Are you then arguing that we should trust Lhyud here and write peswardheg and pemdheg?"
Given that Lhuyd is the only real evidence that we have for the type of dental fricative in this word. And given that Welsh has /θ/ in this word (and therefore Lhuyd's <dh> is not the result of Welsh influence). Why would you want to write this word with <th>, and what evidence do you have to support such a pronunciation?
My question was not intended as rhetorical and I was rather hoping that Michael or someone else might care to reply.

l an gwella,

Dr. Jon Mills, 
School of European Culture and Languages, 
University of Kent

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