daniel at ryan-prohaska.com
Sun May 20 19:49:33 IST 2012
On May 20, 2012, at 8:23 PM, Michael Everson wrote:
> On 20 May 2012, at 18:17, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
>> I'm not speaking about how KK speakers mispronounce the language and there are far worse mispronunciations than word-final /ð/ as [θ], and maybe they weren't mispronouncing ‹dh› at all, as KK allows for unveiling before other voiceless consonants, absolute aslant etc.
>> There's a difference for speakers following KK recommendations between ‹Gorsedh Kernow› [θ], and ‹Nowydh yw an carr ma› [ð] (I used SWF/Mt here, with derogation from ‹nowyth› to ‹nowydh›) => [ˈnɔwɪð ɪʊ ən kæɹ mɐ] despite the fact that some speakers would rather say **[ˈnəʊɪθ jʉʊ æn kɑːɹ mæ].
> Then you should spell it ‹th› and let some people voice to /ð/ in intervocalic position if they wish.
How would you know when to pronounce ‹th› intervocalically as [ð] or [θ]?
>> I'm actually talking about the possibility of word-final /ð/ in unstressed position remaining voiced up until the LC period. But you know this, so I'm not going to harp on about it anymore, because it's becoming a tad tedious….
> Do I know it? I have asked you more than once to provide your evidence. You know how it's done. With lists of examples from the texts.
I have done that. Attestations and all.
> You will hate me for saying so,
I don't think so...
> but I've asked you for the evidence you use for your theory just as I used to ask Keith Bailey for lists of examples that "proved" his theory about rhyme. "You know it. You can search the archive for it. I'm to busy to write it up." Thus he proved that he really had no theory that could convince.
> Take a few days off your dictionary and write up the evidence for your theory, Dan, please, or you have no chance of convincing anyone of its merit.
I also have a day- and night job …
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