[Spellyans] A few questions about mixed mutation of words beginning with G
njawilliams at gmail.com
Wed Aug 26 12:51:50 IST 2015
We have a further problem with wh/w. In BM (and possibly elsewhere) <w> is sometimes written
when <wh> is expected. 'Sweet, dear' for example is written <wek> in BM thirty-four times.
Does <w> here mean the unvoiced w or does it mean that the consonant is no longer voiceless?
I suspect the second. In CF for instance we find kymmerr y zoz wrek, where wrek probably means [wre:g].
Maga certainly seems to cause mixed mutation in some cases:
maga whyn auel an leth PC 3138
ha y thillas a ve gwris maga whyn avell an yrth
ha maga fuer drok deffry 'and such a great evil indeed' RD 1433.
On the other hand we find:
maga ver dell yll bos gothvethis 'as much as can be known' TH 14.
The whole question of initial mutation needs thorough examination.
On 26 Aug 2015, at 09:40, harry hawkey <bendyfrog at live.com> wrote:
> 'and thy wife' is ha'th wrehgty OM 389; ha'th wrek PC 685; hath wreag CW 834. That means
> ha'th is followed by lenition.
> Don't forget these: (lenition followed by provection?)
> a'th wheres(OM, 893); the'th whythres(OM, 326); y'th whylsyn(RD, 2546); y'th wholowys(OM, 285); the'th whul(OM, 67)
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