[Spellyans] <kk> and <ck>
craig at agantavas.org
Thu Dec 18 11:35:30 GMT 2008
The SWF spells this word kalgh, kal' (calgh, cal'). Why the
apostrophe to denote something that was never there in the first place?
Another apparently senseless anomaly - the SWF is spelling marhek,
marhas, bian/bihan but my'tern. Why the apostrophe in this word? It
will only serve to confuse learners. I will not be using it.
On 18 Kev 2008, at 11:28, Craig Weatherhill wrote:
> KG's dictionary suggests a Brittonic *kalgo-, and cites B. kalc'h;
> W. cal(y), and adds: N.B. The final [x] is not attested in Cornish.
> So why did he add it? Because it occurs in Breton? That is not
> justification, especially as a final [x] appears to be unattested in
> Welsh, too. Words fail me. A simple operation, favoured by Middle
> Eastern countries (and the USA), is best applied to *kalgh.
> On 18 Kev 2008, at 09:39, nicholas williams wrote:
>> Notice kyns ys bos kullyek kenys PC 903 where kullyek = 'cock,
>> Note also Komero ’vyth goz Kal JBoson, where Kal is 'membrum virile'.
>> This word is attested only once, but KK spells it <kalgh>. What is
>> that on the end?
>> On 18 Dec 2008, at 07:30, Eddie Climo wrote:
>>> Be thankful for small mercies; at least Cornish has never (?) a
>>> similarly spelt English, otherwise the King of the Barnyard might
>>> be written as:
>>>> SWF *kokk
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