[Spellyans] Ian Jackson: introduction
njawilliams at gmail.com
Tue Dec 22 13:20:12 GMT 2015
I drew attention to rhotacised spellings that predated non-rhotacised spellings.
This was intended as a caveat to Jan’s remark: “shift forward a few hundred years”.
I didn’t speculate about the date of rhotacisation or whether it was dialectal or idiolectal.
There doesn’t seem to be enough evidence to answer either question.
It is likely, however, that -s- continued sometimes to be written, even when the writer in question
rhotacised in his own speech.
> On 15 Dec 2015, at 13:34, Anthony Hearn <a.d.hearn at blueyonder.co.uk> wrote:
> Nicholas, are you saying that the rhotacising had happened by the late 16th century but that spelling remained conservative? Or that it was dialectal or idiosyncratic until it became general? What are you views on this development and its timing?
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